Questions about Sodom and Gomorrah

Lazuli Waves

Woodpecker
Why did Lot offer his daughters to homosexual rapists? Why did his daughters get him drunk, then sleep with him?

I can understand the latter as his daughters having been corrupted by Sodom and Gomorrah. I've read an argument that they thought the world had ended, and they had to repopulate the world, but they had just spent time in another city, Zoar. I think we don't know why.

I don't understand the first part, because Lot is described as righteous, so how could he be if he offered his daughters to homosexual rapists? I've read an argument that he was either bluffing for some reason, which makes the most sense to me. Or he was foolishly trying to protect the angels, who could take care of themselves.
 

Athanasius

Pelican
One thing I like about the Bible is that its narration is often presented impartially. It just lets you know what happened, free of editorial comment, and invites meditation on it to draw conclusions based on God's law. It shows the warts of even the greatest of men. The lack of editorial finger-wagging doesn't imply assent. For example, when Lot's wife becomes a pillar of salt, the next verse doesn't say "Lot's wife was stupid for looking back." But a bit of meditation makes clear that she disregarded what she was told to do. Jesus uses her as a negative example in Luke 17. I don't believe it ever tells us why Lot offered his daughters but it's likely that he was honoring near-eastern hospitality codes, which said that family should come to harm before guests. Lot acted wrongly in offering up his daughters, but the larger point in the narrative was the utter wickedness of the Sodomites.

I think the daughters got him drunk because they wanted children and did not see options to have them hiding out with their father. I believe their husbands-to-be were destroyed in Sodom. Utterly evil behavior.
 
Last edited:
Why did Lot offer his daughters to homosexual rapists? Why did his daughters get him drunk, then sleep with him?

I can understand the latter as his daughters having been corrupted by Sodom and Gomorrah. I've read an argument that they thought the world had ended, and they had to repopulate the world, but they had just spent time in another city, Zoar. I think we don't know why.

I don't understand the first part, because Lot is described as righteous, so how could he be if he offered his daughters to homosexual rapists? I've read an argument that he was either bluffing for some reason, which makes the most sense to me. Or he was foolishly trying to protect the angels, who could take care of themselves.

This was in response to Atheists:

In an Honor/Shame Society of Sodom they have the perverse incentive that allows them to gain Honor by raping Men thereby declaring dominance over them at the same time as gratifying their homosexual lusts.

And the Men of the City tried to do so. But when Lot offered his virgin daughters it was to insult them.


Of course, there is no doubt under our view that the Sodomites were also inhospitable. But the refusal to take Lot's daughters shows that the matter was likely one of social dominance: the men wished to show that they were social superiors to Lot's visitors, and they wished to accomplish this by means of the socially-dominating act of homosexuality. Moreover, the "persistence of the Sodomites does not reflect the demeanor of would-be hospitable folk." If it were, Lot would have hardly protested as he did.

 
Why did his daughters get him drunk, then sleep with him?

I can understand the latter as his daughters having been corrupted by Sodom and Gomorrah. I've read an argument that they thought the world had ended, and they had to repopulate the world, but they had just spent time in another city, Zoar. I think we don't know why.

Lot's Daughters were influenced by the degenerate culture of Sodom. There is every reason to think that the Cultural Sewer of those Cities impacted their very sense of Morality.
 

Lazuli Waves

Woodpecker
This was in response to Atheists:

In an Honor/Shame Society of Sodom they have the perverse incentive that allows them to gain Honor by raping Men thereby declaring dominance over them at the same time as gratifying their homosexual lusts.

And the Men of the City tried to do so. But when Lot offered his virgin daughters it was to insult them.
Lot's Daughters were influenced by the degenerate culture of Sodom. There is every reason to think that the Cultural Sewer of those Cities impacted their very sense of Morality.

These interpretations make sense to me.
 
@infowarrior1 that video was extremely helpful! Thank you for sharing it.

No worries mate. I think people have to keep in mind that in contrast to the Individualist West. The people of History are often Collectivist. And their cultures therefore is more about Honor and Shame.

Shame as in requiring the surveillance of others. On the other hand Crimes committed in secret is "Out of sight, Out of Mind". If the community cannot find out then its not really wrong. God of course got around this due to being Omnipresent.
 
Last edited:
I think because God detested homosexuality so much and valued patriarchy so much, that Sodom, acting as an agent of God's providence, decided to offer his daughters as substitutes for the lust of the Sodomites.
 
Top